CFA Level 2 Free Practice Test

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5 questions will be shown from 30 free practice questions to prepare you for the CFA level 2 exam. Enjoy!

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1. The lower market prices Betta observes for Bay Corp bonds is most likely explained by:

. Betta has taken the correct approach in using actual coupon bonds for Bay Corp and estimating implied zero-coupon bonds. Because the bonds rank equally, there is no need to adjust for differences in priority in case of default. In practice, bond prices will be affected by liquidity, and investors expect additional spread or a liquidity premium to compensate for less liquid corporate bonds relative to sovereign bonds.
because there is a need to convert coupon bonds to implied zero-coupon bonds to infer the spread.
because no adjustment is necessary for differences in priority since all the bonds in this case rank equally.

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2. Which of the statements about economic growth and the performance of equity and debt markets is the least accurate?

There is a direct relationship, not an indirect one, between estimated poten- tial GDP growth and credit quality: Higher growth leads to higher quality—that is, an improvement in the likelihood of promised cash flows occurring.
Gillibrand’s statement is accurate. In the long run, the growth rate of GDP dominates. The ratio of earnings to GDP can neither rise nor decline forever, so over the long term it must approximate zero. Similarly, the P/E ratio cannot grow or contract forever, so over the long term it must also approximate zero. Thus, the drivers of potential GDP are ultimately the drivers of stock market performance. Navarro’s statement is accurate. The growth rate of potential GDP is an important determinant of the level of real interest rates, and thus real asset returns in general, in the economy. Faster growth in potential GDP means consumers expect their real income to rise more rapidly. Thus, higher rates of potential GDP growth translate into higher real interest rates and higher expected real asset returns in general.

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3. In sharing her research material with the subject companies, LeCompte most likely violated CFA Institute Research Objectivity Standards with respect to her report(s) on:

LeCompte violated Requirement 6, Relationships with Subject Companies, by sharing the full research report with NanoMem. Sharing any section of a research report that might communicate the analyst’s proposed recommendation, rating, or price target is prohibited by the Research Objectivity Standards. Sharing historical factual information, on the other hand, is not a violation.
LeCompte shared with UniFlash management only the part of her report on UniFlash that provides factual information.

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4. Are Marlin’s points regarding structural models of credit risk most likely correct?

. Both points that Marlin makes regarding structural models of credit risk are correct.
because the first point is correct.
because the second point is correct.

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5. The mark-to-market value for Drawbridge’s forward position is closest to:

.
1 Drawbridge sold AUD 5 million forward to the settlement date at an all-in forward price of 0.8940 (USD/AUD).
2 To mark the position to market, Drawbridge offsets the forward transaction by buying AUD 5 million three months forward to the settlement date.
3 For the offsetting forward contract, because the AUD is the base currency in the USD/AUD quote, buying AUD forward means paying the offer for both the spot rate and forward points.
I. The all-in three-month forward rate is calculated as 0.9066 – 0.00364 = 0.90296
II. This gives a net cash flow on settlement day of 5,000,000 × (0.8940 – 0.90296) = –USD44,800 (This is a cash outflow because Drawbridge sold the AUD for- ward and the AUD appreciated against the USD).
4 To determine the mark-to-market value of the original forward position, calculate the present value of the USD cash outflow using the three-month USD discount rate: –USD44,8000/[1 + 0.0023(90/360)] = –USD44,774.
. The present value of the cash flow was not calculated (step 4 of
calculation).
. The cash flow was calculated using the bid rate instead of the offer rate.
1 The all-in three-month forward rate = 0.9062 – 0.00368 = 0.90252
2 This gives a net cash flow on settlement day of 5,000,000 × (0.8940 – 0.90252) = – USD42,600, and the present value is calculated as –USD42,600/[1 + 0.0023(90/360)] = –USD42,576.

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